testosterone is not a pro drug it does not need to be activated. testosterone is a substarte when the cholesterol needs to be made in to testosterone it causes a chemical reaction witch causes the cholesterol to form into testosterone via chemical reaction from the cyp341. i may be wrong.
like hydrocodone is a pro drug and needs to be activated by the cyp2ds into hydromorphone to take affect.
testosterone is testosterone from my understading exactly like you body and is ready to bind to androgen receptors as soon as you inject no chemical reaction required to alter the molecule to be active and take effect. am i correct or does the body have to alter the testosterone injected to be effect and ready for use.
from my understanding is cyp34a just get rid of the testosterone, it attches a carbon to it and then it gets excreated. and cyp34a turns cholesterol into testosterone.
CYP3A4 and CYP450 enzymes are what allow us to metabolize drugs; putting them to use in our bodies. This is why many drugs have a warning about consuming grapefruit juice the juice has a reaction with the CYP450 chain, making it more effective (inhibitor). Even if you were to inject TNE, which has no ester - your body still requires the enzyme action to utilize the hormone. It just happens so quickly, that we don't normally even think about it. Here's a list of common Cytochrome P450 substrates and their inhibitors/inducers:
Link.
Yes, part of the metabolization process is to excrete the unused portion or waste byproducts that come after the body has put the drug/compound to use. If the sole function of these enzymes was to merely allow you to excrete it, you would see zero benefit from any drugs that utilize this pathway of absorption/metabolization. Think of it as food; you eat food, your body breaks down the food, you absorb the nutrients, and excrete what is left over. It's pretty much similar in this process. Yes, this is how you use hydrocodone as the active metabolite is hydromorphone, which needs to be extracted by the Cytochrome pathway.
The only difference between each type of testosterone is the attached ester. So yes, test is test is test once you have cleaved the ester from the molecule. Once that is done, your body puts it to use through the above mentioned pathway and allows it to attach to not only the receptors, but to the SHBG and of course excrete what is left over in your urine/feces.
You are correct in that endogenous testosterone is also metabolized through this pathway, but I am not honestly sure where it comes into play as the chain from cholesterol to active hormone has a few more steps involved. Exogenous hormones are different in that this conversion isn't needed, but as they are bio-identical, I would imagine that your body doesn't see a difference in extraction of the parts it needs beyond this conversion from cholesterol to hormone. I hope that makes sense.
I have been trying to find more information regarding your speculation on esterase and its role in being unable to cleave certain esters, but my google-fu is a bit weak this afternoon. If I find something that will help this debate later on, I'll be sure to add it.
My .02c
Edit: Had the action of gfruit backwards. It's an inhibitor of cyp3a4, not an inducer - as excretion is slowed by it.