Hell of a discussion going on here......props to Animal, Ulter and Macro------sure would be nice to keep it CIVIL though

Any chance?
Anyways.......
After sifting through the above posts from BOTH sides presented here, I do not think the argument is whether or not r-ALA or ALA fasciliates glucose disposal efficiently; but rather, if it effectively and favorably drives the micronutrients (amino's and glucose) into muscle cells preferentially over fat cells or does it simply "clear them" from the blood stream quicker.
How has it been shown to selectively enhance the muscle cells' ability to pull nutrients in as opposed to the adipocytes doing the same? Wouldn't THIS be based entirely on the individual's genetic dispositon...."where" the amino's and glucose will be temporarily stored and NOT solely based on glucose clearance as THIS does not dictate the focal directon of disposal? This would be more of an increased receptor cell sensitivity issue (initiating the the pre-step of creating an environment conducive to glucose clearing) verses a clearing of the glucose/amino's.
I have taken ALA (tried both) on and off for ~2 years now and I definitley "feel better" using it with the ingestion of higher carb meals. HOWEVER.......one thing that's always concerned me is this: HOW can I be assured once the glucose is cleared from my bloodstream, that it will be directed into my muscle cells vs my fat cells? How can I know that by taking ALA, I have induced an optimal environment for simple glucose clearance verses a much preferred increased inulin sensitivity scenario (muscle cell specific)?
Personally, when I consume my carb-up meals along side ala, I "feel" that ala has dome its "job" in assisting the rapid removal of glucose and therefore the feeling of lethargy (brought upon from excess insulin) is inhibited. Fine! I buy that 100%. I also believe that with LESS insulin floating around, there is obviously LESS fat storage! HOWEVER.....it still remains unclear WHERE the glucose is going. THIS to me has never been "proven".
WHY should it be assumed that the glucose is being disposed of "properly"? Define "properly"? If by that you mean.......clearing it out of your blood efficiently; resulting in the need for less insulin release.....I believe it IS disposed of "properly". However.......if you fail to prove that it will preferentially be driven into muscle cells verses fat cells.......I DO NOT think this could be/should be labeled as "proper glucose disposal" via increased insulin sensitivity; conversely....it merely becomes a glucose disposal agent without much significance (unless you are obese or a diabetic or someone pre-Syndrome X)...therfore its "purpose" becomes much less significant IMO.
Furthermore, if it follows the second example, essentially only "mimicking insulin" verses increasing insulin sensitivity favorably of the muscle cells; it would NOT favor glucose or amino acid uptake into the muscle cells. Again......its purpose becomes limited. Has THIS be shown one way or the other?